NHPC 2022 Electrical Engineering Junior Engineer trainee questions with answers

NHPC 2022 Electrical Engineering Junior Engineer trainee questions with answers

 NHPC 2022 Electrical Engineering Junior Engineer trainee questions with answers





Section : General Awareness





























Q.1 The 23rd state of the Indian Union, according to the Constitution of India, is: 

Ans A. Mizoram 

B. Sikkim 

C. Goa

D. Arunachal Pradesh

 

       

Q.2 Which of the following institutions launched the beta version of 'Swarajability' – India's first AI-based job portal for persons with disability? 

Ans A. IIT Madras 

B. IIT Kanpur 

C. IISc Bangalore 

D. IIT Hyderabad 

 

 

 

Q.3 Which of the following folk songs belongs to the Ahir Community of Bihar? 

Ans A. Sohar 

B. Kajri 

C. Astajam 

D. Birha 

 

 

Q.4 Eukaryotic cells are significantly larger than prokaryotic cells. What is the range of the size of the Eukaryotic cells?? 

Ans A. 10–105 µm in diameter 

B. 10–100 µm in diameter 

C. 10–110 µm in diameter 

D. 15–100 µm in diameter 

 

 

 

Q.5 Which of the following festivals of Mizoram is also known as ‘Straw Festival’? 

Ans A. Tah Kut festival 

B. Chapchar Kut festival 

C. Pawl Kut festival 

D. Mim Kut festival 

 

   

   

   6 In which month is the book named 'How to Prevent the Next Pandemic' written by Bill Gates set to be published? 

Ans A. In May 2022 

B. In June 2022 

C. In April 2022 

D. In March 2022 

 

 

 

Q.7 On 25 December 1737, the battle of Bhopal was fought between Mughal forces led by 

Nizam of Hyderabad and ________. 

Ans A. Maratha Empire 

B. Sikh Empire 

C. Kingdom of Mysore 

D. Vijayanagara Empire 

 

 

Chosen Option : --

Q.8 Which of the following banks launched the programme 'Agri Infinity' in February 2022? 

Ans A. Yes Bank 

B. SBI Bank 

C. HDFC Bank 

D. Bank Of Baroda 

 

 

 

Q.9 Rafael Nadal won the Australian Open 2022 by defeating: 

Ans A. Roger Federer 

B. Daniil Medvedev 

C. Novak Djokovic 

D. Alexander Zverev 

 

   

 

Q.10 According to Census 2001, which of the following districts of UP has the minimum SC 

population? 

Ans A. Baghpat 

B. Sonbhadra 

C. Sitapur 

D. Kaushambi 

 

 

 

Q.11 In which of the following years was the Indus Waters Treaty signed after nine years of 

negotiations between India and Pakistan with the help of the World Bank? 

Ans A. 1958 

B. 1963 

C. 1962 

D. 1960 

 

 

Q.12 The battle that was fought between the Marathas and the Portuguese rulers of Vasai was known as: 

Ans A. Battle of Kharda 

B. Battle of Bassein 

C. Battle of Palkhed 

D. Battle of Attock 

 

 

 

Q.13 The Pacific Coast Foundation was founded in 1913 by Lal Hardayal. Who was its president? Ans A. Kartar Singh Sarabha 

B. Madan Lal Dhingra 

C. Bhikaiji Cama 

D. Sohan Singh Bhakna 

 

 

 

Q.14 In February 2022, the foundation of the world's third largest cricket stadium was laid by Sourav Ganguly. In which of the following states was this stadium established? 

Ans A. Karnataka 

B. Madhya Pradesh 

C. Gujarat 

D. Rajasthan 

 

   

   

Q.15 Which of the following is the oxidation of sugar, a process used extensively in cooking for the resulting nutty flavor and brown colour? 

Ans A. Emulsification 

B. Putrefaction 

C. Denaturation 

D. Caramelisation 

 

   

 

Q.16 The Union Budget of a year is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement according to ________ of the Constitution of India. 

Ans A. Article 112 

B. Article 115 

C. Article 102 

D. Article 110 

 

   

    

Q.17 Which of the following features of the Constitution of India has NOT been taken from 

Australia? 

Ans A. Article 108 i.e., joint sitting of the two houses 

B. Concept of Concurrent list 

C. Directive Principles of State Policy 

D. Freedom of trade and commerce 

 

 

 

Q.18 Pellagra is caused by the severe deficiency of ________. 

Ans A. Vitamin B7 

B. Vitamin B2 

C. Vitamin B3 

D. Vitamin B1 

 

 

 

Q.19 ________ is a state that shares around 200 km to 260 km length of border with China. 

Ans A. Himachal Pradesh 

B. Sikkim 

C. Arunachal Pradesh 

D. Uttarakhand 

 

 

Q.20 Article 21A of the Constitution of India came into effect on: 

Ans A. 1 May 2011 

B. 1 May 2010 

C. 1 April 2010 

D. 1 April 2011 

 

 

 

Q.21 Who among the following is the 18th chief economic advisor of India? 

Ans A. Raghuram Rajan 

B. V Anantha Nageswaran 

C. Krishnamurthy Subramanian 

D. Arvind Subramanian 

 

   

 

Q.22 To which of the following communities does the group folk dance Chu-Faat belong? 

Ans A. Bhutia 

B. Mizo 

C. Lepcha 

D. Naga 

 

 

 

Q.23 Which of the following instruments is NOT used in the Dappu dance performed by the tribes of Andhra Pradesh? 

Ans A. Tabla 

B. Tanpura 

C. Dappu 

D. Harmonium 

 

 

Q.24 The Lucknow Pact was signed between Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Bal Gangadhar Tilak in: Ans A. 1917 

B. 1915 

C. 1914 

D. 1916 

 

 

Q.25 Ankita Raina received Arjuna Award 2021. She is associated with: 

Ans A. athletics 

B. tennis 

C. badminton 

D. shooting 

 

Q.26 Advancement of economically weaker sections of citizens comes under which amendment of the Constitution of India? 

Ans A. One Hundred and Twenty-Sixth Amendment 

B. One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment 

C. One Hundred and Twenty-Fourth Amendment 

D. One Hundred and Twenty-Fifth Amendment 

 

 

Q.27 Who among the following wicketkeeper-batsmen won the ESPN Cricinfo ‘Test Batting 

Award’ 2021? 

Ans A. KL Rahul 

B. Dinesh Karthik 

C. MS Dhoni 

D. Rishabh Pant 

   

Q.28 China PR won the AFC Women’s Asian Cup India 2022 Football Tournament by defeating: Ans A. Australia 

B. Philippines 

C. South Korea 

D. Japan 

 

 

Q.29 ________ is one of the ‘open trading border posts’ between India and China. 

Ans A. Rohtang Pass 

B. Nathu La Pass 

C. Bara-Lacha Pass 

D. Niti Pass 

 

 

Q.30 The concept of minimum support price was introduced in India in: 

Ans A. 1969 

B. 1964 

C. 1966 

D. 1968 

 

 

Section : Reasoning

Q.1 Ranjita was facing towards the east. She walked 35 m to reach the hospital. Turning to her left, she walked another 30 m and then turning right, she walked 40 m to reach the medical 

shop. Finally, she turned right and walked 30 m more to reach the bus stop. How far is she 

from her starting point? 

Ans A. 75 m 

B. 90 m 

C. 85 m 

D. 70 m 

   

    

Q.2 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is 

related to the first term. 

TRACK : MFFYE :: GLOBE : ? 

Ans A. GTERS 

B. GTDQR 

C. GETSR 

D. GDTRQ 

 

   

   

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘ACUMEN’ is written as ‘QBPRFX’. How will ‘CENSURE’ be written in that language? 

Ans A. CURVKHZ 

B. HOXPQBF 

C. HUXVQHF 

D. CORPKBZ 

   

 

Q.4 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. 

Afghanistan : Kabul :: Cuba : ? 

Ans A. Santiago 

B. Havana 

C. Bogota 

D. Harare 

 

 

Q.5 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. 

Kangaroo : Joey 

Ans A. Calf : Elephant 

B. Deer : Fawn 

C. Cub : Tiger 

D. Piglet : Pig 

 

   

Q.6 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Indians, Scientists, Musicians 

Ans 


 

 

 







Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, 

decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements: 

All acids are bases. 

All bases are carbohydrates. 

Conclusions: 

I. All acids are carbohydrates. 

II. No acid is a carbohydrate. 

Ans A. Only conclusion I follows 

B. Only conclusion II follows 

C. Either conclusion I or II follows 

D. Both conclusions I and II follow 

   

    

Q.8 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

13, 23, 26, 49, 52, ? 

Ans A. 101 

B. 102 

C. 110 

D. 120 

   

  

Q.9 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

BMG, EKJ, HIM, KGP, ? 

Ans A. MET 

B. NFS 

C. MFT 

D. NES 


12 Consider the given statement and decide which of the given assumptions is/are implicit in the statement. 

Statement: 

Inculcate ‘Help ever-Hurt never’ in school going children at an early age. 

Assumptions: 

I. Any pain or wrong inflicted on another is but an affliction to oneself 

II. Good habits should be inculcated from childhood to grow up and become better people. 

Ans A. Both assumptions I and II are implicit 

B. Only assumption II is implicit 

C. Only assumption I is implicit 

D. Either assumption I or II is implicit 

 

   

  

Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, 

decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements: 

Some jails are ATMs.  

Some ATMs are banks.  

All banks are colleges. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some colleges are ATMs 

II. Some banks are jails. 

III. No bank is a jail.  

IV. Some ATMs are jails. 

Ans A. Only conclusions II and III follow 

B. Both conclusions I and IV and either conclusion II or III follow 

C. Only conclusions II and IV follow 

D. Only conclusions I and II follow 

   

 

Q.14 Four letter-clusters pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter-cluster pair that is different. 

Ans A. SILK : UENG 

B. PAGE : RWIA 

C. NEST : PAUO 

D. TAPE : VWRA 

   

   

Q.15 Four number triads have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-triad that is different. 


Ans A. (4, 35, 67) 

B. (8, 67, 131) 

C. (10, 77, 151) 

D. (5, 43, 83) 

 

Q.16 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary. 

1. Memorable 

2. Marvellous 

3. Milestone 

4. Magnet 

5. Mischievous 

Ans A. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 

B. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 

C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 

D. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 

 

   

Q.17 Chandan leaves his college and walks 18m towards the south to reach the public garden. Then he takes a left and walks 25 m to reach Dmart. Then he turns 90-degrees in the anti 

clockwise direction and walks 18m to reach Coffee Club. From Coffee Club, he takes a left 

and walks 13 m to reach his home.  What is the horizontal distance between Chandan’s 

college and Coffee Club, and in which direction is Coffee Club from Chandan’s college? 

Ans A. 35 m, West 

B. 25 m, East 

C. 25 m, West 

D. 35 m, East 

 

Q.18 Tarun is the son of Charan. Charan has only two children. Tarun is the brother of Ravali. Ravali is the daughter of Pranavi. Aditi is the granddaughter of Pranavi. Sundar is the father 

of Aditi. How is Sundar related to Tarun? 

Ans A. Brother-in-law 

B. Son-in-law 

C. Brother 

D. Son 

 

   

  

Q.19 A drama teacher is selecting five students for a skit to be performed on the occasion of Independence Day celebrations at the school. For three roles, senior students are needed 

and the other two roles are to be given to junior students. Selection must be made from four 

senior school students K, L, M, N and three junior school students P, Q and R. 

i) L and P are siblings and cannot be in the same skit. 

ii) P has to go with Q. 

iii) R cannot go with K. 

Which of the following groups can be selected for the skit? 

Ans A. KPRQN 

B. LRQMN 

C. KPQMN 

D. KLPQM 

 

   

   

Q.20 Select the word-pair in which the two words share a different relationship from that shared by the two words in the rest of the word-pairs. 

Ans A. Field : Hockey 

B. Course : Golf 

C. Ring : Skating 

D. Diamond : Baseball 

 

   

Q.21 In a certain code language, ‘STUMBLE’ is coded as ‘95’, and ‘NASTY’ is coded as ‘55’. How will ‘CLOUDY’ be coded in that language? 

Ans A. 82 

B. 90 

C. 80 

D. 92 

   

Q.24 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 

Ans A. 10 

B. 7 

C. 9 

D. 8 

 

Q.25 Eight Board of Directors B, M, N, D, P, C, R and E are sitting around a round table facing the centre at equal distance from each other, but not necessarily in the same order. D is to the 

immediate right of B and third to the left of P. M is the immediate neighbor of C but not of 

N. P is the immediate neighbor of E and second to the right of M. N is not the neighbor of 

B. 

Who is sitting diagonally opposite to M? 

Ans A. E 

B. R 

C. N 

D. B 

   

   

Q.26 Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series. 

13, 23, 47, 91, 183, 336 

Ans A. 91 

B. 336 

C. 47 

D. 183 

 

   

 

Q.27 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is 

different. Select the word that is different. 

Ans A. Bark 

B. Prowl 

C. Roar 

D. Grunt 

 

 

Q.28 Mayank leaves his home and walks 27 m towards the north to reach the sports shop. Then he turns right and walks 37 m to reach the bakery. Then he turns right and walks 42 m. Then he turns left and walks 22 m. Finally, he turns left and walks 15 m to reach the stadium. In 

which direction and how far is he from the starting point? 

Ans A. East, 52 m 

B. West, 59 m 

C. East, 59 m 

D. West, 52 m 

       

Q.30 Identify the letter-cluster that does NOT belong to the following series. 

KGSX, NJRV, QMQT, TPPQ, WSOP 

Ans A. TPPQ 

B. WSOP 

C. NJRV 

D. QMQT 

 

    

Section : General Engineering

Q.1 Which of the following type of materials has the forbidden energy gap of approximately of 15 eV? 

Ans A. Conductor 

B. Super conductor 

C. Insulator 

D. Semiconductor 

 

 

Q 

Q.3 Swinburne’s test is applicable for: 

Ans A. lossless machine 

B. constant flux machine 

C. constant loss machine 

D. varying flux machine 

 

 

 

Q.4 In chain survey, building is an example for: 

Ans A. obstacle to chaining only 

B. obstacle to both chaining and ranging 

C. obstacle to levelling only 

D. obstacle to ranging only 

 

 

Q.5 Which of the following is NOT p-type impurity? 

Ans A. Indium 

B. Boron 

C. Arsenic 

D. Aluminium 

   

    

Q.6 Which of the following is correct? 

Ans A. Dimension of ‘dynamic viscosity’ is given by M L-1 T-1 

B. Dimension of ‘dynamic viscosity’ is given by M L T-2 

C. 1.0 stoke = 0.001 m2/s  

D. 1.0 Poise = 10.0 N-s/m2 

 

 

Q.7 Steam turbine’s output in the thermal power plant is required to do ___________ work. 

Ans A. heat 

B. mechanical 

C. magnetic 

D. electrical 

   

 

Q.8 Which of the following is NOT a durability test conducted on building stones? 

Ans A. Brard’s test 

B. Acid test 

C. Smith test 

D. Mohs scale test 

   

 

Q.9 What will be the heat input to a Carnot engine that operates between a source temperature of 900 K and a sink temperature of 300 K and produces 100 kJ of work? 

Ans A. 100 kJ 

B. 200 kJ 

C. 300 kJ 

D. 150 kJ 

 

Q.10 According to IS 10500-2012, the maximum acceptable limit of fluoride in drinking water is: Ans A. 1.5 mg/l 

B. 0.5 mg/l 

C. 1.0 mg/l 

D. 2.0 mg/l 

   

 

 

Q.11 The frequency of the 7th harmonic for the fundamental frequency of 50Hz is: 

Ans A. 350 Hz 

B. 220 Hz 

C. 300 Hz 

D. 150 Hz 

   

    

Q.12 Which of the following concrete grades has mix proportion 1 : 1.5 : 3 (cement : fine 

aggregate : coarse aggregate)? 

Ans A. M20 

B. M40 

C. M10 

D. M30 

 

 

Q.13 A nozzle is to be designed to expand steam at the rate of 0.1 kg/s from 500 kPa, 210°C to 100 kPa. Steam velocity at the exit of the nozzle is found to be 700 m/s and the specific 

volume of the steam at the exit of the nozzle is found to be 1.4 m3/kg. What will be the exit 

area of the nozzle? 

Ans A. 0.2 cm2 

B. 2 cm2 

C. 20 cm2 

D. 2 m2 

 

 

Q.14 Self-induction is sometimes analogously called: 

Ans A. mechanical inertia 

B. potential energy 

C. kinetic energy 

D. electromagnetic inertia 

 

   

 

Q.15 An ideal vapour compression refrigeration system works on the evaporator temperature of 0°C and condenser temperature of 40°C. The refrigeration effect is found to be 100 kJ/kg 

and specific work input to the compressor is found to be 50 kJ/kg. What will be the 

coefficient of performance of the refrigeration system? 

Ans A. 0.5 

B. 3 

C. 1 

D. 2 

 

 

Q.16 Two horizontal plates are placed 2 cm apart, the space between them being filled with oil of viscosity 1.6 N.s/m2 The bottom plate is stationary. What is the shear stress in oil if the 

upper plate is moved with a velocity of 2 m/s? 

Ans A. 140 N/m2 

B. 160 N/m2 

C. 130 N/m2 

D. 150 N/m2 

 

Q.17 2 kg of liquid (system) having a specific heat of 2.5 kJ/kg-K is stirred in a well-insulated chamber causes the temperature to rise by 10°C. Which of the following is true for this 

process? 

Ans A. Heat transfer from the system is 50 kJ. 

B. Heat transfer to the system is 50 kJ. 

C. Work done by the system is 50 kJ. 

D. Work done on the system is 50 kJ. 

 

Q.18 Which of the following is NOT true? 

 

Ans A. Kaplan turbine is a reaction turbine. 

B. Pelton wheel is an axial flow turbine. 

C. Pelton wheel is an impulsive turbine. 

D. Kaplan turbine is an axial flow turbine. 

 

 

Q.19 For finding Thevenin equivalent circuit, the Circuit Current Sources have been replaced by: Ans A. finite resistance 

B. infinite resistance 

C. internal admittance 

D. zero resistance 

 

   

Q.20 As per IRC, the width of formation for major district road having two lanes on plain and rolling terrain is: 

Ans A. 12 m 

B. 9 m 

C. 4.75 m 

D. 7.5 m 

 

 

Q.21 The irrigation method in which water is slowly and directly applied to the root zone of the plants, thereby minimising the losses by evaporation and percolation, is called: 

Ans A. flood irrigation 

B. furrow irrigation 

C. sprinkler irrigation 

D. trickle irrigation 

   

 

Q.22 Soils are classified into 18 groups in which soil classification system? 

Ans A. Unified Soil Classification System 

B. Massachusetts Institute of Technology Soil Classification System 

C. AASHTO Soil Classification System 

D. Indian Standard Soil Classification System 

 

 

Q.23 Which of the following is NOT the merit of a coal-fired thermal station? 

Ans A. Initial cost less 

B. Less space 

C. Atmospheric pollution is less 

D. Fuel (coal) is cheap 

   

   

Q.24 In which method of valuation is net income from building calculated by deducting all the outgoings from gross rent? 

Ans A. Valuation based on cost 

B. Valuation based on profit 

C. Rental method of valuation 

D. Development method of valuation 

 

 

Q.25 Which is the closed path in a circuit? 

Ans A. Junction 

B. Branch 

C. Loop 

D. Node 

 

 

Q.26 What is the name of the steel which has the following characteristics? 

i) This steel is deoxidized sufficiently so that there is no evolution of gas during 

solidification and is free from casting defects (blowhole, pinhole, porosity etc.) 

ii) This steel contains more than 0.25% carbon and is denoted by symbol ‘K’ 

Ans A. Killed steel 

B. Semi-killed steel 

C. Cast iron 

D. Rimmed steel 

   

    

Q.27 A rigid tank contains 0.05 m3 of saturated water vapour at 370 kPa pressure. What will be the mass of vapour inside the tank? 

[Given; Specific volume of saturated vapor at pressure 370 kPa is 0.5 m3/kg] 

Ans A. 0.1 kg 

B. 0.025 kg 

C. 0.25 kg 

D. 10 kg 

 

 

Q.28 Which of the following is correct for the ideal vapour-compression refrigeration cycle? 

Ans A. Specific enthalpy of the refrigerant remains constant during the throttling process. B. Specific enthalpy of the refrigerant decreases during the throttling process. 

C. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, the throttling process is shown by the horizontal 

line. 

D. Specific enthalpy of the refrigerant increases during the throttling process. 

 

 

 

Q.29 For the sinusoidal alternating wave, the value of Form Factor is: 

Ans A. 2.11 

B. 1.01 

C. 1.11 

D. 1.15 

   

 

Q.30 The nominal diameter (φ) of rivet (in mm units) using Unwin’s formula is given by which of the following options? Where t is the thickness of the steel plate (in mm unit) 

Ans



 

 




Section : Domain Knowledge


Q.1 In a magnetic circuit, the magnetic coil has 10 turns and the reluctance of the magnetic path is 250 AT/Wb. Find the value of self-inductance. 

Ans A. 2.5 H 

B. 0.04 H 

C. 0.25 H 

D. 0.4 H 

 

 

 

Q.2 In a single phase circuit, the apparent power is 250 VA and the reactive power is 150 VAr. Find the active power. 

Ans A. 400 W 

B. 300 W 

C. 200 W 

D. 100 W 

 

 

Q.3 In a DC machine, the ___________ serves as a return path for the pole flux. 

Ans A. pole face 

B. yoke 

C. pigtail 

D. pole shoe 

   

Q.4 What value of a series resistor is required to limit the current through an LED to 20 mA with a forward voltage drop of 2.0 V, when connected to a 10-V supply? 

Ans A. 200 Ω 

B. 400 Ω 

C. 600 Ω 

D. 800 Ω 

 

 

Q.5 In case of gold plating, the anode is of ____________. 

Ans A. nickel 

B. copper 

C. gold 

D. stainless steel 

   

Q.6 For parallel circuits, __________ is the quantity analogous to reactance in series circuits. 

Ans A. inductance 

B. capacitance 

C. susceptance 

D. impedance 

    

Q.7 Which of the following is an application of arc lamps? 

Ans A. Lighting of playing fields 

B. Flash cameras 

C. Lighting of garden fountains 

D. Lighting of car parks 

 

 

Q.8 If a power plant has no reserve capacity, then the plant capacity factor is equal to the 

________. 

Ans A. load factor 

B. demand factor 

C. plant use factor 

D. diversity factor 

 

Q.9 Which of the following expenses is NOT covered under overhead charges? 

Ans A. Rate of lighting and heating 

B. Depreciation of office equipment 

C. Loss due to flood 

D. Office rent 

 

 

 

Q.10 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hydroelectric power plants? 

Ans A. No smoke or ash production 

B. Very high maintenance cost 

C. Robust construction and longer life 

D. No fuel required 

 

    

Q.11 Two coils having self-inductances of 16 H and 4 H are coupled in such a way that the 

mutual inductance is 4 H. Find the coefficient of coupling. 

Ans A. 1.00 

B. 0.75 

C. 0.50 

D. 0.25 

 


Q.12 Find the value of Req in the following network. 



Ans A. 24 Ω 

B. 12 Ω 

C. 20 Ω 

D. 4 Ω 

 

Q.13 An electric bulb consumes 720 kJ of energy in 5 hours. Find the power rating of the bulb. Ans A. 15 W 

B. 60 W 

C. 40 W 

D. 100 W 

 

 

 

Q.14 A conductor of length 0.5 m moves in a uniform magnetic field of density 1.5 T at a velocity of 60 m/s. Calculate the induced voltage in the conductor when the direction of motion is 

inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction of the field. 

Ans A. 16.5 V 

B. 22.5 V 

C. 39 V 

D. 45 V 

 

 

 

Q.15 In single phase induction motors, during blocked rotor test, the rotor is: 

Ans A. at rest 

B. running at super-synchronous speed 

C. running at synchronous speed 

D. running at sub-synchronous speed 

 

Q.16 A sinusoidal current is expressed as i(t) = 75 sin 50πt. Find the frequency. 

Ans A. 5 Hz 

B. 10 Hz 

C. 25 Hz 

D. 50 Hz 

 

Q.17 For a synchronous motor, the AC electrical power input to stator is the algebraic sum of the gross mechanical power developed in armature and the ____________. 

Ans A. excitation losses 

B. friction losses 

C. armature copper losses 

D. iron losses 

 

 

Q.18 In hydroelectric power plants, ________ are open or closed conduits which carry water to the turbines. 

Ans A. dams 

B. penstocks 

C. spillways 

D. surge tanks 

 

Q.19 The peak amplitude of a sinusoidal voltage is 120 V. Find the peak-to-peak voltage. 

Ans A. 240 V 

B. 340 V 

C. 120 V 

D. 170 V 

 

Q.20 In steam power plants, the __________ is a part of the ash handling system. 

Ans A. ball mill 

B. electrostatic precipitator 

C. boiler 

D. economiser 

   

    

Q.21 In cleat wiring, cleats are fixed at regular intervals not exceeding ______. 

Ans A. 1.0 m 

B. 0.2 m 

C. 0.6 m 

D. 0.1 m 

 

 

Q.22 For a full-wave bridge rectifier, the supply voltage v(t) = 100 sin ωt. Find the PIV of the 

diode. 

Ans A. 141 V 

B. 50 V 

C. 200 V 

D. 100 V 

 

 

 

Q.23 Which of the following is INCORRECT for electric heating? 

Ans A. Maintenance cost is low. 

B. It is free from dirt. 

C. Accurate temperature control is possible. 

D. Overall efficiency is low. 

 

   

 

Q.24 A 1-phase transformer has 400 primary and 1000 secondary turns. If the primary is 

connected to a 50-Hz supply at 500 V, determine the voltage induced in the secondary 

winding. 

Ans A. 1000 V 

B. 400 V 

C. 1250 V 

D. 1400 V 

 

 

 

Q.25 A good heating element should have a _________ specific resistance and a ____________ 

temperature coefficient of resistance. 

Ans A. high; high 

B. low; high 

C. high; low 

D. low; low 

 

   

    

Q.26 Which of the following is an example of a non-Newtonian fluid? 

Ans A. Kerosene 

B. Petrol 

C. Peanut butter 

D. Water 

 

   

    

Q.27 If the measurement indicates a vacuum of 150 Torr, what will be the absolute pressure? 

Ans A. 150 Torr 

B. 610 Torr 

C. 760 Torr 

D. 910 Torr 

 

 

:

Q.28 In an alternator, for which type of load will the armature reaction be distortional? 

Ans A. Zero power factor lagging 

B. Power factor = 0.5 

C. Unity power factor 

D. Zero power factor leading 

 

 

 

Q.29 State TRUE/FALSE for following statements. 

1. In a delta-delta system, the line voltage and phase voltage are equal. 

2. When a Y-connected load is supplied by voltages in abc phase sequence, the line 

voltages lag the corresponding phase voltages by 30°. 

Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE 

B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE 

C. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE 

D. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE 

 

 

 

Q.30 For a common emitter connection of BJT, find the value of β if α = 0.995. 

Ans A. 19 

B. 99 

C. 9 

D. 199 

 

   

 

Q.31 Find the current ‘I’ in the following circuit. 



Ans A. 3 A 

B. 5 A 

C. 2 A 

D. 1 A 

 

   

  

Q.32 Which fault is indicated by following diagram? 

           


Ans A. LG fault 

B. LL fault 

C. LLG fault 

D. Symmetrical fault 

 

   

   

Q.33 Which of the following flowmeters works on the principle of Bernoulli’s theorem? 

Ans A. Orifice meter 

B. Electromagnetic flowmeter 

C. Lobed impeller flowmeter 

D. Ultrasonic flowmeter 

 

   

   

Q.34 State TRUE/FALSE for following statements. 

1. In blocked rate tariff, the price per unit in the first block is lowest.  

2. In uniform rate tariff, the price charged per unit is constant. 

Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE 

B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE 

C. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE 

D. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE 

 

   

  

Q.35 A dielectric material is allowed to accumulate the charge through a 2.5-A current. How much time will it require to accumulate a charge of 40 C? 

Ans A. 60 seconds 

B. 16 seconds 

C. 30 seconds 

D. 100 seconds 

 

 

 

Q.36 A generating station has an installed capacity of 50 MW and delivers 250 × 106 units per annum. If the annual fixed charges are ₹160 per kW installed capacity and running charges 

are 4 paise per kWh, find the cost per unit generated. 

Ans A. 7.2 paise 

B. 7.6 paise 

C. 7.4 paise 

D. 7.8 paise 

 

   

 

Q.37 Which of the following tests is also known as ‘phantom loading’? 

Ans A. Direct loading test 

B. Indirect loading test 

C. No load test 

D. Short circuit test 

 

   

   

Q.38 Find Geq in the following network. 



Ans A. 4 S 

B. 10 S 

C. 6 S 

D. 8 S 

 

 

Q.39 With reference to synchronous motors, state TRUE/FALSE for following statements. 

1. A synchronous compensator is a synchronous motor running without a mechanical load.  

2. For the same output and voltage rating, a synchronous motor is costlier than an induction 

motor. 

Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE 

B. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE 

C. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE 

D. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE 

 

   

 

Q.40 In which of the following is the heating obtained with the help of eddy current? 

Ans A. Dielectric heating 

B. Bombardment heating 

C. Resistance heating 

D. Induction heating 

 

   

    

Q.41 A three-phase motor draws 5.6 kW power when subjected to an apparent power of 7000 VA. Find the reactive power. 

Ans A. 6.3 kVAr 

B. 2.8 kVAr 

C. 1.4 kVAr 

D. 4.2 kVAr 

 

 

 

Q.42 With reference to DC motors, state TRUE/FALSE for following statements. 

1.The difference between armature torque and shaft torque is known as lost torque. 

2. Increase in flux would decrease the torque. 

Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE 

B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE 

C. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE 

D. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE 

 

 

Q.43 Transform the following circuit into star network. 

Ans 


 

 

   

 

Q.44 The temperature coefficient of resistance is ________ for silicon and _______ for copper. 

Ans A. positive; positive 

B. positive; negative 

C. negative; positive 

D. negative; negative 

 

   

 

Q.45 The phenomenon of oscillation of the rotor about its equilibrium position is called ________. Ans A. plugging 

B. phase locking 

C. hunting 

D. single phasing 

 

   

    

Q.46 For a 3-phase induction motor, the synchronous speed is 3000 rpm. Find the actual rotor speed if the slip is 3%. 

Ans A. 2970 rpm 

B. 2820 rpm 

C. 2730 rpm 

D. 2910 rpm 

 

 

Q.47 Identify the measuring instrument shown below. 



Ans A. Rotameter 

B. Venturimeter 

C. Manometer 

D. Thermometer 

 

   

   

Q.48 With reference to testing of DC machines, state TRUE/FALSE for following statements. . 1. The most economical method of finding no-load losses of a large DC shunt motor is 

Swinburne’s test. . 

2. Retardation test on a DC shunt motor is used for finding stray losses. 

Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE 

B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE 

C. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE 

D. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE 

 

 

 

Q.49 In which type of lighting is the light distribution in upward and downward directions 

approximately the same? 

Ans A. Direct lighting 

B. Indirect lighting 

C. Semi-direct lighting 

D. General diffusing lighting 

 

   

   

Q.50 With reference to the delta-delta connection of a 3-phase transformer, state TRUE/FALSE for following statements. 

1. It is satisfactory for both balanced and unbalanced loading. 

2. Third harmonic does not appear in the output voltage wave. 

Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE 

B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE 

C. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE 

D. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE 

 

 

Q.51 For a single stage transistor amplifier, the collector load Rc = 2 kΩ and the input resistance Ri = 1 kΩ. If the current gain is 50, calculate the voltage gain of the amplifier. 

Ans A. 200 

B. 150 

C. 50 

D. 100 

 

 

 

Q.52 What is the recommended level of illumination in control rooms of power houses? 

Ans A. 700 lux 

B. 1500 lux 

C. 150 lux 

D. 300 lux 

 

   

 

Q.53 The voltage and current being applied to a load are sinusoidal waveforms whose amplitudes are 50 V and 10 A, respectively. The phase angle between them is 30°. Find the reactive 

power of the load. 

Ans A. 216 VAr 

B. 500 VAr 

C. 125 VAr 

D. 250 VAr 

 

 

 

Q.54 The effective resistance of a 2200-V, 50-Hz, 440-kVA, 1-phase alternator is 0.5 Ω. On short circuit, a field current of 40 A gives a full load current of 200 A. The open circuit EMF for the 

same field excitation is 1200 V. Find the synchronous impedance. 

Ans A. 6.5 Ω 

B. 13 Ω 

C. 6.0 Ω 

D. 12 Ω 

 

 

Q.55 


 

 

 

Q.56 The unit of reluctivity is: 

Ans A. Wb 

B. Metre/Henry 

C. Henry/Metre 

D. AT 

   

Q.57 A typical squirrel cage induction motor will have _______ starting torque with ______ starting current, when started direct-on-line. 

Ans A. 600%; 130% 

B. 200%; 300% 

C. 300%; 200% 

D. 130%; 600% 

 

 

 

Q.58 Ten capacitors are connected in series. If all the ten capacitors are of the same value and the equivalent capacitance is 10 µF, find the capacitance of each capacitor. 

Ans A. 100 µF 

B. 50 µF 

C. 20 µF 

D. 10 µF 

 

   

  

Q.59 In CRO, _____________ is NOT a part of the vertical deflection system. 

Ans A. main amplifier 

B. delay line 

C. preamplifier 

D. time base generator 

 

 

Q.60 A half-wave voltage doubler consists of _____ diode(s). 

Ans A. two 

B. one 

C. three 

D. four 

   

    

Q.61 Find the voltage ‘V’ in the following circuit. 



Ans A. 6 V 

B. 10 V 

C. 14 V 

D. 30 V 

   

    

Q.62 In induction motors, the synchronous speed is: 

Ans A. directly proportional to the frequency 

B. directly proportional to the square-root of the frequency 

C. inversely proportional to the frequency 

D. inversely proportional to the square-root of the frequency 

 

Q.63 In the following circuit, if I1 = 10 A, I2 = 15 A and I3 = 20 A, find the total current IT

Ans A. 5 A 

B. 45 A 

C. 25 A 

D. 15 A 

 

   

   

Q.64 Arrange the following materials in ascending order with reference to the resistance offered to electrical current? 

Glass, Silver, Germanium 

Ans A. Germanium, Glass, Silver 

B. Silver, Germanium, Glass 

C. Silver, Glass, Germanium 

D. Glass, Germanium, Silver 

 

   

   

Q.65 


 

   


 

Q.66 __________ is the most commonly used material for insulators of overhead lines. 

Ans A. Steatite 

B. Porcelain 

C. Quartz 

D. Glass 

 

   

Q.67 Find the value of Leq in the following circuit. 



Ans A. 18 H 

B. 4 H 

C. 12 H 

D. 5 H 

 

   

   

Q.68 Which segments of a seven-segment LED should be lighted on to display the digit ‘1’? 

Ans A. Segments B and C 

B. Segments E and F 

C. Segments C and D 

D. Segments A and B 

 

 

 

Q.69 In following circuit, find the total current supplied by the battery. 



Ans A. 2 A 

B. 3 A 

C. 5 A 

D. 2.5 A 

 

   

   

Q.70 Which of the following instruments is NOT used for fluid flow measurements? 

Ans A. Pitot tube 

B. Pyrometer 

C. Hot wire anemometer 

D. Orifice meter 

 

   

 

Q.71 Find the voltage drop across the 6-kΩ resistor in the following network.


 

Ans A. 90 V 

B. 120 V 

C. 30 V 

D. 60 V 

 

Q.72 When two identical sinusoidal voltages with zero-degree phase difference are applied on X and Y plates of a CRO, the Lissajous figure obtained will be a/an __________. 

Ans A. circle 

B. straight line with negative slope 

C. straight line with positive slope 

D. ellipse 

 

   

   

Q.73 With reference to the power cable insulation, which of the following synthetic rubber-like insulating materials is a thermosetting compound? 

Ans A. PE – Polyethylene 

B. EPR – Ethylene Propylene Rubber 

C. HEPR – Hard Ethylene Propylene Rubber 

D. XLPE – Cross-Linked Poly Ethylene 

 

 

 

Q.74 The ratio of the operating capacity to the available capacity of an Open-Delta connection is ___________ 

Ans A. 0.577 

B. 0.866 

C. 0.667 

D. 0.134 

 

   

 

Q.75 The following symbol is used for: 



Ans A. Impedance 

B. Inductance 

C. Resistance 

D. Capacitance 

 

   

    

Q.76 Which of the following is a hard magnetic material? 

Ans A. Ferrite 

B. Iron 

C. nickel-iron alloy 

D. Iron-silicon alloy 

 

   

   

Q.77 Which of the following motors gives translational motion instead of rotational motion? 

Ans A. Three-phase induction motor 

B. Linear induction motor 

C. DC shunt motor 

D. Synchronous motor 

 

 

 

Q.78 What will be the output frequency of a 6-pole alternator running at a speed of 1200 rpm? Ans A. 30 Hz 

B. 60 Hz 

C. 25 Hz 

D. 50 Hz 

 

   

  

Q.79 A moving-coil voltmeter has the coil with 100 turns and is 4 cm long and 3 cm wide. If it carries 25 mA of current and the flux density in the air gap is 0.06 Wb/m2, find the 

deflecting torque. 

Ans A. 18 × 10-5 N-m 

B. 9 × 10-5 N-m 

C. 9 × 10-6 N-m 

D. 18 × 10-6 N-m 

 

 

 

Q.80 The maximum demand on a power station is 200 MW. If the annual load factor is 50%, 

calculate the total energy generated in a year. 

Ans A. 438 × 10kWh 

B. 876 × 106 kWh 

C. 438 × 106 kWh 

D. 876 × 10kWh 

 

 

 

Q.81 In case of indirect arc furnaces, the power factor is approximately ________. 

Ans A. 0.95 lagging 

B. 0.65 lagging 

C. 0.85 lagging 

D. 0.75 lagging 

 

 

 

Q.82 The current plug settings usually range from 10% to 70% in steps of _________ for earth leakage relays. 

Ans A. 20% 

B. 5% 

C. 10% 

D. 15% 

 

Q.83 Which of the following bridges is used for the measurement of incremental inductance? Ans A. De-Sauty bridge 

B. Schering bridge 

C. Kelvin’s bridge 

D. Owen bridge 

 

   

   

Q.84 A ring-shaped core with a cross-sectional area of 400 mm2 carries a total flux of 10 mWb. Find the flux density. 

Ans A. 25 T 

B. 2.5 T 

C. 0.25 T 

D. 0.025 T 

 

 

 

Q.85 Transform the following sinusoid form into phasor form: 

i(t) = 10 cos (50t - 30°) 

Ans 


 

 

 





Q.86 For synchronous motors, inverted V-curves are the plots of power factor versus 

____________. 

Ans A. output frequency 

B. field current 

C. armature current 

D. supply voltage 

 

   

Q.87 In cadmium copper conductors, addition of 1% to 2% cadmium to copper increases the tensile strength by approximately __________. 

Ans A. 50% 

B. 95% 

C. 75% 

D. 25% 

 

 

 

Q.88 In an underground system, the volume of the conductor material required in 2-wire DC 

system with midpoint earthed is ____________ that for a 2-wire DC system. 

Ans A. four times 

B. thrice 

C. twice 

D. the same as 

 

 

 

Q.89 In a cumulative compound DC generator, if the terminal voltage at full load is greater than that at no load, it is called _________. 

Ans A. under compounded 

B. flat compounded 

C. over compounded 

D. critically compounded 

 

   

    

Q.90 The following two tariffs are offered: 

(i) ₹100 plus 15 paise per unit 

(ii) A flat rate of 40 paise per unit 

At what consumption is the first tariff economical? 

Ans A. Above 400 units 

B. Above 300 units 

C. Above 200 units 

D. Above 100 units 

 

 

Q.91 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Permanent Split Capacitor (PSC) motors? Ans A. High pullout torque 

B. High power factor 

C. High starting torque 

D. High efficiency 

 

 

 

Q.92 Which of the following is a non-fusion welding? 

Ans A. Inert gas welding 

B. Carbon arc welding 

C. Submerged arc welding 

D. Forge welding 

 

 

 

Q.93 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of shaded pole single phase motors? 

Ans A. Low efficiency 

B. High overload capacity 

C. Low starting torque 

D. Low overload capacity 

 

   

   

Q.94 Find the most economical value of the diameter of a single core cable to be used on a 50- kV, single-phase system. The maximum permissible stress in the dielectric should not 

exceed 40√2 kV/cm. 

Ans A. 2.5 cm 

B. 3.5 cm 

C. 2.0 cm 

D. 3.0 cm 

 

 

Q.95 In a 1-phase alternator, the synchronous impedance is 0.25 Ω and the armature resistance is 0.1 Ω. Find the synchronous reactance. 

Ans A. 0.23 Ω 

B. 0.24 Ω 

C. 0.25 Ω 

D. 0.26 Ω 

 

 

 

Q.96 Find V2 in the following circuit. 



Ans A. 6 V 

B. 4 V 

C. 10 V 

D. 8 V 

 

   

    

Q.97 A three-phase induction motor has 8 poles, and it runs on a supply frequency of 60 Hz. Find the speed of the rotating magnetic field. 

Ans A. 900 rpm 

B. 600 rpm 

C. 1200 rpm 

D. 1500 rpm 

 

 

 

Q.98 In vulcanised Indian Rubber (VIR)-type insulating material, the sulphur content is _________. Ans A. 0.7% to 1.5% 

B. 10% to 15% 

C. 3% to 5% 

D. 0.1% to 0.5% 

 

Q.99 Which of the following is NOT a correct voltage level for primary transmissions? 

Ans A. 66 kV 

B. 220 kV 

C. 132 kV 

D. 11 kV 


 Q.100 Which of the following is NOT a valid advantage of static capacitors being used for power factor improvement? 

Ans A. Less maintenance 

B. Long service life – more than 15 years 

C. Low losses 

D. No rotating parts 

 

 

 

Q.101 _____________ is a semiconductor device with a P-N junction that converts light into 

electrical current. 

Ans A. Zener diode 

B. Tunnel diode 

C. Light-emitting diode 

D. Photodiode 

 

   

   

Q.102 The following symbol is used for: 








Ans A. Plug 

B. Socket 

C. Isolator 

D. Circuit breaker 


Q.103 A 100-W electric heater has a resistance of 4 Ω. What will be the maximum permissible current? 

Ans A. 10 A 

B. 5 A 

C. 15 A 

D. 25 A 

 

   

   

Q.104 Which of the following is NOT a valid advantage of fluorescent lamps? 

Ans A. High luminous efficiency 

B. No stroboscopic effect 

C. Low running cost 

D. Long life 

 

   

 

Q.105 The peak point voltage and the valley point voltage are characteristics of a _________. 

Ans A. Zener diode 

B. Varactor diode 

C. Schottky diode 

D. Tunnel diode 

 

 

 

Q.106 Up to a voltage of __________, Potential Transformers (PTs) are usually of dry type. 

Ans A. 15000 V 

B. 2000 V 

C. 5000 V 

D. 1000 V 

 

   

    

Q.107 Which of the following bridges is a mutual inductance bridge? 

Ans A. Maxwell Wien bridge 

B. De-Sauty bridge 

C. Owen bridge 

D. Heaviside-Campbell Bridge 

 

   

Q.108 The maximum possible value of mutual inductance between two coils having self 

inductances of 16 H and 25 H are: 

Ans A. 9 H 

B. 20 H 

C. 10 H 

D. 41 H 

 

 

 

Q.109 Which of the following is NOT a valid advantage of hybrid stepper motors? 

Ans A. Small step length 

B. Low inertia and weight 

C. Greater torque per unit volume 

D. High efficiency at low speeds 



Q.110 A steel ring with a 15-cm2 cross-sectional area is wound uniformly with 1000 turns of wire carrying a current of 500 mA. Find the MMF. 

Ans A. 750 AT 

B. 50 AT 

C. 75 AT 

D. 500 AT 



These are the latest questions of NHPC 2022 electrical. 

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