NHPC 2022 Electrical Engineering Junior Engineer trainee questions with answers
Section : General Awareness
Q.1 The 23rd state of the Indian Union,
according to the Constitution of India, is:
Ans A. Mizoram
B. Sikkim
C. Goa
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Q.2 Which of the following institutions launched the beta version of 'Swarajability' – India's first AI-based job portal for persons with disability?
Ans A. IIT Madras
B. IIT Kanpur
C. IISc Bangalore
D. IIT Hyderabad
Q.3 Which of the following folk songs belongs
to the Ahir Community of Bihar?
Ans A. Sohar
B. Kajri
C. Astajam
D. Birha
Q.4 Eukaryotic cells
are significantly larger than prokaryotic cells. What is the range of the size of
the Eukaryotic cells??
Ans A. 10–105 µm in diameter
B. 10–100 µm in diameter
C. 10–110 µm in diameter
D. 15–100 µm in diameter
Q.5 Which of the following festivals of
Mizoram is also known as ‘Straw Festival’?
Ans A. Tah Kut festival
B. Chapchar Kut festival
C. Pawl Kut festival
D. Mim Kut festival
6 In which month is
the book named 'How to Prevent the Next Pandemic' written by Bill Gates set to
be published?
Ans A. In May 2022
B. In June 2022
C. In April 2022
D. In March 2022
Q.7 On 25 December 1737, the battle of Bhopal
was fought between Mughal forces led by
Nizam of Hyderabad and ________.
Ans A. Maratha Empire
B. Sikh Empire
C. Kingdom of Mysore
D. Vijayanagara Empire
Chosen Option : --
Q.8 Which of the following banks launched the
programme 'Agri Infinity' in February 2022?
Ans A. Yes Bank
B. SBI Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. Bank Of Baroda
Q.9 Rafael Nadal won the Australian Open 2022
by defeating:
Ans A. Roger Federer
B. Daniil Medvedev
C. Novak Djokovic
D. Alexander Zverev
Q.10 According to Census 2001, which of the
following districts of UP has the minimum SC
population?
Ans A. Baghpat
B. Sonbhadra
C. Sitapur
D. Kaushambi
Q.11 In which of the following years was the
Indus Waters Treaty signed after nine years of
negotiations between India and Pakistan with
the help of the World Bank?
Ans A. 1958
B. 1963
C. 1962
D. 1960
Q.12 The battle that
was fought between the Marathas and the Portuguese rulers of Vasai was known
as:
Ans A. Battle of Kharda
B. Battle of Bassein
C. Battle of Palkhed
D. Battle of Attock
Q.13 The Pacific Coast
Foundation was founded in 1913 by Lal Hardayal. Who was its president? Ans A. Kartar Singh Sarabha
B. Madan Lal Dhingra
C. Bhikaiji Cama
D. Sohan Singh Bhakna
Q.14 In February 2022,
the foundation of the world's third largest cricket stadium was laid by Sourav
Ganguly. In which of the following states was this stadium established?
Ans A. Karnataka
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Rajasthan
Q.15 Which of the
following is the oxidation of sugar, a process used extensively in cooking for
the resulting nutty flavor and brown colour?
Ans A. Emulsification
B. Putrefaction
C. Denaturation
D. Caramelisation
Q.16 The Union Budget
of a year is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement according to
________ of the Constitution of India.
Ans A. Article 112
B. Article 115
C. Article 102
D. Article 110
Q.17 Which of the following features of the
Constitution of India has NOT been taken from
Australia?
Ans A. Article 108 i.e., joint sitting of the two houses
B. Concept of Concurrent list
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Freedom of trade and commerce
Q.18 Pellagra is caused by the severe
deficiency of ________.
Ans A. Vitamin B7
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B1
Q.19 ________ is a state that shares around
200 km to 260 km length of border with China.
Ans A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Sikkim
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Uttarakhand
Q.20 Article 21A of the Constitution of India
came into effect on:
Ans A. 1 May 2011
B. 1 May 2010
C. 1 April 2010
D. 1 April 2011
Q.21 Who among the following is the 18th chief
economic advisor of India?
Ans A. Raghuram Rajan
B. V Anantha Nageswaran
C. Krishnamurthy Subramanian
D. Arvind Subramanian
Q.22 To which of the following communities
does the group folk dance Chu-Faat belong?
Ans A. Bhutia
B. Mizo
C. Lepcha
D. Naga
Q.23 Which of the
following instruments is NOT used in the Dappu dance performed by the tribes of
Andhra Pradesh?
Ans A. Tabla
B. Tanpura
C. Dappu
D. Harmonium
Q.24 The Lucknow Pact
was signed between Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Bal Gangadhar Tilak in: Ans A. 1917
B. 1915
C. 1914
D. 1916
Q.25 Ankita Raina received Arjuna Award 2021.
She is associated with:
Ans A. athletics
B. tennis
C. badminton
D. shooting
Q.26 Advancement of
economically weaker sections of citizens comes under which amendment of the
Constitution of India?
Ans A. One Hundred and Twenty-Sixth Amendment
B. One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth
Amendment
C. One Hundred and Twenty-Fourth
Amendment
D. One Hundred and Twenty-Fifth
Amendment
Q.27 Who among the following
wicketkeeper-batsmen won the ESPN Cricinfo ‘Test Batting
Award’ 2021?
Ans A. KL Rahul
B. Dinesh Karthik
C. MS Dhoni
D. Rishabh Pant
Q.28 China PR won the
AFC Women’s Asian Cup India 2022 Football Tournament by defeating: Ans A. Australia
B. Philippines
C. South Korea
D. Japan
Q.29 ________ is one of the ‘open trading
border posts’ between India and China.
Ans A. Rohtang Pass
B. Nathu La Pass
C. Bara-Lacha Pass
D. Niti Pass
Q.30 The concept of minimum support price was
introduced in India in:
Ans A. 1969
B. 1964
C. 1966
D. 1968
Section : Reasoning
Q.1 Ranjita was facing
towards the east. She walked 35 m to reach the hospital. Turning to her left,
she walked another 30 m and then turning right, she walked 40 m to reach the
medical
shop. Finally, she turned right and walked 30
m more to reach the bus stop. How far is she
from her starting point?
Ans A. 75 m
B. 90 m
C. 85 m
D. 70 m
Q.2 Select the option that is related to the
third term in the same way as the second term is
related to the first term.
TRACK : MFFYE :: GLOBE : ?
Ans A. GTERS
B. GTDQR
C. GETSR
D. GDTRQ
Q.3 In a certain code
language, ‘ACUMEN’ is written as ‘QBPRFX’. How will ‘CENSURE’ be written in
that language?
Ans A. CURVKHZ
B. HOXPQBF
C. HUXVQHF
D. CORPKBZ
Q.4 Select the option
that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related
to the first word.
Afghanistan : Kabul :: Cuba : ?
Ans A. Santiago
B. Havana
C. Bogota
D. Harare
Q.5 Select the option
in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair
of words.
Kangaroo : Joey
Ans A. Calf : Elephant
B. Deer : Fawn
C. Cub : Tiger
D. Piglet : Pig
Q.6 Select the Venn
diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Indians, Scientists, Musicians
Ans
Q.7 Read the given
statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts,
decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All acids are bases.
All bases are carbohydrates.
Conclusions:
I. All acids are carbohydrates.
II. No acid is a carbohydrate.
Ans A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or II follows
D. Both conclusions I and II follow
Q.8 Select the number
from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the
following series.
13, 23, 26, 49, 52, ?
Ans A. 101
B. 102
C. 110
D. 120
Q.9 Select the
letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark
(?) in the following series.
BMG, EKJ, HIM, KGP, ?
Ans A. MET
B. NFS
C. MFT
D. NES
12 Consider the given statement and decide which of the given assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement:
Inculcate ‘Help ever-Hurt never’ in school
going children at an early age.
Assumptions:
I. Any pain or wrong inflicted on another is
but an affliction to oneself
II. Good habits should be inculcated from
childhood to grow up and become better people.
Ans A. Both assumptions I and II are implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Only assumption I is implicit
D. Either assumption I or II is implicit
Q.13 Read the given
statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts,
decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some jails are ATMs.
Some ATMs are banks.
All banks are colleges.
Conclusions:
I. Some colleges are ATMs
II. Some banks are jails.
III. No bank is a jail.
IV. Some ATMs are jails.
Ans A. Only conclusions II and III follow
B. Both conclusions I and IV and either
conclusion II or III follow
C. Only conclusions II and IV follow
D. Only conclusions I and II follow
Q.14 Four
letter-clusters pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some
manner and one is different. Select the letter-cluster pair that is
different.
Ans A. SILK : UENG
B. PAGE : RWIA
C. NEST : PAUO
D. TAPE : VWRA
Q.15 Four number triads have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and
one is different. Select the number-triad that is different.
Ans A. (4, 35, 67)
B. (8, 67, 131)
C. (10, 77, 151)
D. (5, 43, 83)
Q.16 Select the
correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order
in which they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Memorable
2. Marvellous
3. Milestone
4. Magnet
5. Mischievous
Ans A. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
B. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
D. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
Q.17 Chandan leaves
his college and walks 18m towards the south to reach the public garden. Then he
takes a left and walks 25 m to reach Dmart. Then he turns 90-degrees in the
anti
clockwise direction and walks 18m to reach
Coffee Club. From Coffee Club, he takes a left
and walks 13 m to reach his home. What
is the horizontal distance between Chandan’s
college and Coffee Club, and in which
direction is Coffee Club from Chandan’s college?
Ans A. 35 m, West
B. 25 m, East
C. 25 m, West
D. 35 m, East
Q.18 Tarun is the son
of Charan. Charan has only two children. Tarun is the brother of Ravali. Ravali
is the daughter of Pranavi. Aditi is the granddaughter of Pranavi. Sundar is
the father
of Aditi. How is Sundar related to
Tarun?
Ans A. Brother-in-law
B. Son-in-law
C. Brother
D. Son
Q.19 A drama teacher
is selecting five students for a skit to be performed on the occasion of
Independence Day celebrations at the school. For three roles, senior students
are needed
and the other two roles are to be given to
junior students. Selection must be made from four
senior school students K, L, M, N and three
junior school students P, Q and R.
i) L and P are siblings and cannot be in the
same skit.
ii) P has to go with Q.
iii) R cannot go with K.
Which of the following groups can be selected for
the skit?
Ans A. KPRQN
B. LRQMN
C. KPQMN
D. KLPQM
Q.20 Select the
word-pair in which the two words share a different relationship from that
shared by the two words in the rest of the word-pairs.
Ans A. Field : Hockey
B. Course : Golf
C. Ring : Skating
D. Diamond : Baseball
Q.21 In a certain code
language, ‘STUMBLE’ is coded as ‘95’, and ‘NASTY’ is coded as ‘55’. How will
‘CLOUDY’ be coded in that language?
Ans A. 82
B. 90
C. 80
D. 92
Q.24 Study the given
pattern carefully and select the number from among the given options that can
replace the question mark (?) in it.
Ans A. 10
B. 7
C. 9
D. 8
Q.25 Eight Board of
Directors B, M, N, D, P, C, R and E are sitting around a round table facing the
centre at equal distance from each other, but not necessarily in the same
order. D is to the
immediate right of B and third to the left of
P. M is the immediate neighbor of C but not of
N. P is the immediate neighbor of E and
second to the right of M. N is not the neighbor of
B.
Who is sitting diagonally opposite to M?
Ans A. E
B. R
C. N
D. B
Q.26 Identify the number that does NOT belong
to the following series.
13, 23, 47, 91, 183, 336
Ans A. 91
B. 336
C. 47
D. 183
Q.27 Four words have been given, out of which
three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the word that is
different.
Ans A. Bark
B. Prowl
C. Roar
D. Grunt
Q.28 Mayank leaves his
home and walks 27 m towards the north to reach the sports shop. Then he turns
right and walks 37 m to reach the bakery. Then he turns right and walks 42 m.
Then he turns left and walks 22 m. Finally, he turns left and walks 15 m to
reach the stadium. In
which direction and how far is he from the
starting point?
Ans A. East, 52 m
B. West, 59 m
C. East, 59 m
D. West, 52 m
Q.30 Identify the letter-cluster that does NOT
belong to the following series.
KGSX, NJRV, QMQT, TPPQ, WSOP
Ans A. TPPQ
B. WSOP
C. NJRV
D. QMQT
Section : General Engineering
Q.1 Which of the
following type of materials has the forbidden energy gap of approximately of 15
eV?
Ans A. Conductor
B. Super conductor
C. Insulator
D. Semiconductor
Q
Q.3 Swinburne’s test is applicable for:
Ans A. lossless machine
B. constant flux machine
C. constant loss machine
D. varying flux machine
Q.4 In chain survey, building is an example
for:
Ans A. obstacle to chaining only
B. obstacle to both chaining and ranging
C. obstacle to levelling only
D. obstacle to ranging only
Q.5 Which of the following is NOT p-type
impurity?
Ans A. Indium
B. Boron
C. Arsenic
D. Aluminium
Q.6 Which of the following is correct?
Ans A. Dimension of ‘dynamic viscosity’ is given by M L-1 T-1
B. Dimension of ‘dynamic viscosity’ is given
by M L T-2
C. 1.0 stoke = 0.001 m2/s
D. 1.0 Poise = 10.0 N-s/m2
Q.7 Steam turbine’s output in the thermal
power plant is required to do ___________ work.
Ans A. heat
B. mechanical
C. magnetic
D. electrical
Q.8 Which of the following is NOT a durability
test conducted on building stones?
Ans A. Brard’s test
B. Acid test
C. Smith test
D. Mohs scale test
Q.9 What will be the
heat input to a Carnot engine that operates between a source temperature of 900
K and a sink temperature of 300 K and produces 100 kJ of work?
Ans A. 100 kJ
B. 200 kJ
C. 300 kJ
D. 150 kJ
Q.10 According to IS
10500-2012, the maximum acceptable limit of fluoride in drinking water is: Ans A. 1.5 mg/l
B. 0.5 mg/l
C. 1.0 mg/l
D. 2.0 mg/l
Q.11 The frequency of the 7th harmonic for the
fundamental frequency of 50Hz is:
Ans A. 350 Hz
B. 220 Hz
C. 300 Hz
D. 150 Hz
Q.12 Which of the following concrete grades
has mix proportion 1 : 1.5 : 3 (cement : fine
aggregate : coarse aggregate)?
Ans A. M20
B. M40
C. M10
D. M30
Q.13 A nozzle is to be
designed to expand steam at the rate of 0.1 kg/s from 500 kPa, 210°C to 100
kPa. Steam velocity at the exit of the nozzle is found to be 700 m/s and the
specific
volume of the steam at the exit of the nozzle
is found to be 1.4 m3/kg. What will be the exit
area of the nozzle?
Ans A. 0.2 cm2
B. 2 cm2
C. 20 cm2
D. 2 m2
Q.14 Self-induction is sometimes analogously
called:
Ans A. mechanical inertia
B. potential energy
C. kinetic energy
D. electromagnetic inertia
Q.15 An ideal vapour
compression refrigeration system works on the evaporator temperature of 0°C and
condenser temperature of 40°C. The refrigeration effect is found to be 100
kJ/kg
and specific work input to the compressor is
found to be 50 kJ/kg. What will be the
coefficient of performance of the
refrigeration system?
Ans A. 0.5
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
Q.16 Two horizontal
plates are placed 2 cm apart, the space between them being filled with oil of
viscosity 1.6 N.s/m2 The bottom plate is stationary. What is the shear stress in oil
if the
upper plate is moved with a velocity of 2
m/s?
Ans A. 140 N/m2
B. 160 N/m2
C. 130 N/m2
D. 150 N/m2
Q.17 2 kg of liquid
(system) having a specific heat of 2.5 kJ/kg-K is stirred in a well-insulated
chamber causes the temperature to rise by 10°C. Which of the following is true
for this
process?
Ans A. Heat transfer from the system is 50 kJ.
B. Heat transfer to the system is 50 kJ.
C. Work done by the system is 50 kJ.
D. Work done on the system is 50 kJ.
Q.18 Which of the following is NOT true?
Ans A. Kaplan turbine is a reaction turbine.
B. Pelton wheel is an axial flow
turbine.
C. Pelton wheel is an impulsive turbine.
D. Kaplan turbine is an axial flow
turbine.
Q.19 For finding
Thevenin equivalent circuit, the Circuit Current Sources have been replaced by:
Ans A. finite
resistance
B. infinite resistance
C. internal admittance
D. zero resistance
Q.20 As per IRC, the
width of formation for major district road having two lanes on plain and
rolling terrain is:
Ans A. 12 m
B. 9 m
C. 4.75 m
D. 7.5 m
Q.21 The irrigation
method in which water is slowly and directly applied to the root zone of the
plants, thereby minimising the losses by evaporation and percolation, is
called:
Ans A. flood irrigation
B. furrow irrigation
C. sprinkler irrigation
D. trickle irrigation
Q.22 Soils are classified into 18 groups in
which soil classification system?
Ans A. Unified Soil Classification System
B. Massachusetts Institute of Technology Soil
Classification System
C. AASHTO Soil Classification System
D. Indian Standard Soil Classification
System
Q.23 Which of the following is NOT the merit
of a coal-fired thermal station?
Ans A. Initial cost less
B. Less space
C. Atmospheric pollution is less
D. Fuel (coal) is cheap
Q.24 In which method
of valuation is net income from building calculated by deducting all the
outgoings from gross rent?
Ans A. Valuation based on cost
B. Valuation based on profit
C. Rental method of valuation
D. Development method of valuation
Q.25 Which is the closed path in a
circuit?
Ans A. Junction
B. Branch
C. Loop
D. Node
Q.26 What is the name of the steel which has
the following characteristics?
i) This steel is deoxidized sufficiently so
that there is no evolution of gas during
solidification and is free from casting
defects (blowhole, pinhole, porosity etc.)
ii) This steel contains more than 0.25% carbon
and is denoted by symbol ‘K’
Ans A. Killed steel
B. Semi-killed steel
C. Cast iron
D. Rimmed steel
Q.27 A rigid tank contains 0.05 m3 of saturated water
vapour at 370 kPa pressure. What will be the mass of vapour inside the
tank?
[Given; Specific volume of saturated vapor at
pressure 370 kPa is 0.5 m3/kg]
Ans A. 0.1 kg
B. 0.025 kg
C. 0.25 kg
D. 10 kg
Q.28 Which of the following is correct for the
ideal vapour-compression refrigeration cycle?
Ans A. Specific enthalpy of the refrigerant
remains constant during the throttling process. B. Specific enthalpy of the refrigerant decreases during the
throttling process.
C. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, the
throttling process is shown by the horizontal
line.
D. Specific enthalpy of the refrigerant
increases during the throttling process.
Q.29 For the sinusoidal alternating wave, the
value of Form Factor is:
Ans A. 2.11
B. 1.01
C. 1.11
D. 1.15
Q.30 The nominal
diameter (φ) of rivet (in mm units) using Unwin’s formula is given by which of
the following options? Where t is the thickness of the steel plate (in mm
unit)
Ans
Section : Domain Knowledge
Q.1 In a magnetic
circuit, the magnetic coil has 10 turns and the reluctance of the magnetic path
is 250 AT/Wb. Find the value of self-inductance.
Ans A. 2.5 H
B. 0.04 H
C. 0.25 H
D. 0.4 H
Q.2 In a single phase
circuit, the apparent power is 250 VA and the reactive power is 150 VAr. Find
the active power.
Ans A. 400 W
B. 300 W
C. 200 W
D. 100 W
Q.3 In a DC machine, the ___________ serves as
a return path for the pole flux.
Ans A. pole face
B. yoke
C. pigtail
D. pole shoe
Q.4 What value of a
series resistor is required to limit the current through an LED to 20 mA with a
forward voltage drop of 2.0 V, when connected to a 10-V supply?
Ans A. 200 Ω
B. 400 Ω
C. 600 Ω
D. 800 Ω
Q.5 In case of gold plating, the anode is of
____________.
Ans A. nickel
B. copper
C. gold
D. stainless steel
Q.6 For parallel circuits, __________ is
the quantity analogous to reactance in series circuits.
Ans A. inductance
B. capacitance
C. susceptance
D. impedance
Q.7 Which of the following is an application
of arc lamps?
Ans A. Lighting of playing fields
B. Flash cameras
C. Lighting of garden fountains
D. Lighting of car parks
Q.8 If a power plant has no reserve capacity,
then the plant capacity factor is equal to the
________.
Ans A. load factor
B. demand factor
C. plant use factor
D. diversity factor
Q.9 Which of the following expenses is NOT
covered under overhead charges?
Ans A. Rate of lighting and heating
B. Depreciation of office equipment
C. Loss due to flood
D. Office rent
Q.10 Which of the following is NOT a
characteristic of hydroelectric power plants?
Ans A. No smoke or ash production
B. Very high maintenance cost
C. Robust construction and longer life
D. No fuel required
Q.11 Two coils having self-inductances of 16 H
and 4 H are coupled in such a way that the
mutual inductance is 4 H. Find the coefficient
of coupling.
Ans A. 1.00
B. 0.75
C. 0.50
D. 0.25
Q.12 Find the value of Req in the following network.
Ans A. 24 Ω
B. 12 Ω
C. 20 Ω
D. 4 Ω
Q.13 An electric bulb
consumes 720 kJ of energy in 5 hours. Find the power rating of the bulb. Ans A. 15 W
B. 60 W
C. 40 W
D. 100 W
Q.14 A conductor of
length 0.5 m moves in a uniform magnetic field of density 1.5 T at a velocity
of 60 m/s. Calculate the induced voltage in the conductor when the direction of
motion is
inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction
of the field.
Ans A. 16.5 V
B. 22.5 V
C. 39 V
D. 45 V
Q.15 In single phase induction motors, during
blocked rotor test, the rotor is:
Ans A. at rest
B. running at super-synchronous speed
C. running at synchronous speed
D. running at sub-synchronous speed
Q.16 A sinusoidal current is expressed as i(t)
= 75 sin 50Ï€t. Find the frequency.
Ans A. 5 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 25 Hz
D. 50 Hz
Q.17 For a synchronous
motor, the AC electrical power input to stator is the algebraic sum of the
gross mechanical power developed in armature and the ____________.
Ans A. excitation losses
B. friction losses
C. armature copper losses
D. iron losses
Q.18 In hydroelectric
power plants, ________ are open or closed conduits which carry water to the
turbines.
Ans A. dams
B. penstocks
C. spillways
D. surge tanks
Q.19 The peak amplitude of a sinusoidal
voltage is 120 V. Find the peak-to-peak voltage.
Ans A. 240 V
B. 340 V
C. 120 V
D. 170 V
Q.20 In steam power plants, the __________ is
a part of the ash handling system.
Ans A. ball mill
B. electrostatic precipitator
C. boiler
D. economiser
Q.21 In cleat wiring, cleats are fixed at
regular intervals not exceeding ______.
Ans A. 1.0 m
B. 0.2 m
C. 0.6 m
D. 0.1 m
Q.22 For a full-wave bridge rectifier, the
supply voltage v(t) = 100 sin ωt. Find the PIV of the
diode.
Ans A. 141 V
B. 50 V
C. 200 V
D. 100 V
Q.23 Which of the following is INCORRECT for
electric heating?
Ans A. Maintenance cost is low.
B. It is free from dirt.
C. Accurate temperature control is
possible.
D. Overall efficiency is low.
Q.24 A 1-phase transformer has 400 primary and
1000 secondary turns. If the primary is
connected to a 50-Hz supply at 500 V,
determine the voltage induced in the secondary
winding.
Ans A. 1000 V
B. 400 V
C. 1250 V
D. 1400 V
Q.25 A good heating element should have a
_________ specific resistance and a ____________
temperature coefficient of resistance.
Ans A. high; high
B. low; high
C. high; low
D. low; low
Q.26 Which of the following is an example of a
non-Newtonian fluid?
Ans A. Kerosene
B. Petrol
C. Peanut butter
D. Water
Q.27 If the measurement indicates a vacuum of 150 Torr, what will be the absolute pressure?
Ans A. 150 Torr
B. 610 Torr
C. 760 Torr
D. 910 Torr
:
Q.28 In an alternator, for which type of load
will the armature reaction be distortional?
Ans A. Zero power factor lagging
B. Power factor = 0.5
C. Unity power factor
D. Zero power factor leading
Q.29 State TRUE/FALSE for following
statements.
1. In a delta-delta system, the line voltage
and phase voltage are equal.
2. When a Y-connected load is supplied by
voltages in abc phase sequence, the line
voltages lag the corresponding phase voltages
by 30°.
Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE
B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE
C. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE
D. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE
Q.30 For a common emitter connection of BJT,
find the value of β if α = 0.995.
Ans A. 19
B. 99
C. 9
D. 199
Q.31 Find the current ‘I’ in the following
circuit.
Ans A. 3 A
B. 5 A
C. 2 A
D. 1 A
Q.32 Which fault is indicated by following
diagram?
Ans A. LG fault
B. LL fault
C. LLG fault
D. Symmetrical fault
Q.33 Which of the following flowmeters works
on the principle of Bernoulli’s theorem?
Ans A. Orifice meter
B. Electromagnetic flowmeter
C. Lobed impeller flowmeter
D. Ultrasonic flowmeter
Q.34 State TRUE/FALSE for following
statements.
1. In blocked rate tariff, the price per unit
in the first block is lowest.
2. In uniform rate tariff, the price charged
per unit is constant.
Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE
B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE
C. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE
D. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE
Q.35 A dielectric
material is allowed to accumulate the charge through a 2.5-A current. How much
time will it require to accumulate a charge of 40 C?
Ans A. 60 seconds
B. 16 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 100 seconds
Q.36 A generating station has an installed capacity
of 50 MW and delivers 250 × 106 units per annum. If the annual fixed charges
are ₹160 per kW installed capacity and running charges
are 4 paise per kWh, find the cost per unit
generated.
Ans A. 7.2 paise
B. 7.6 paise
C. 7.4 paise
D. 7.8 paise
Q.37 Which of the following tests is also
known as ‘phantom loading’?
Ans A. Direct loading test
B. Indirect loading test
C. No load test
D. Short circuit test
Q.38 Find Geq in the following network.
Ans A. 4 S
B. 10 S
C. 6 S
D. 8 S
Q.39 With reference to synchronous motors,
state TRUE/FALSE for following statements.
1. A synchronous compensator is a synchronous
motor running without a mechanical load.
2. For the same output and voltage rating, a
synchronous motor is costlier than an induction
motor.
Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE
B. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE
C. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE
D. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE
Q.40 In which of the following is the heating
obtained with the help of eddy current?
Ans A. Dielectric heating
B. Bombardment heating
C. Resistance heating
D. Induction heating
Q.41 A three-phase
motor draws 5.6 kW power when subjected to an apparent power of 7000 VA. Find
the reactive power.
Ans A. 6.3 kVAr
B. 2.8 kVAr
C. 1.4 kVAr
D. 4.2 kVAr
Q.42 With reference to DC motors, state
TRUE/FALSE for following statements.
1.The difference between armature torque and
shaft torque is known as lost torque.
2. Increase in flux would decrease the
torque.
Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE
B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE
C. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE
D. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE
Q.43 Transform the following circuit into star
network.
Ans
Q.44 The temperature coefficient of resistance
is ________ for silicon and _______ for copper.
Ans A. positive; positive
B. positive; negative
C. negative; positive
D. negative; negative
Q.45 The phenomenon of
oscillation of the rotor about its equilibrium position is called ________. Ans
A. plugging
B. phase locking
C. hunting
D. single phasing
Q.46 For a 3-phase
induction motor, the synchronous speed is 3000 rpm. Find the actual rotor speed
if the slip is 3%.
Ans A. 2970 rpm
B. 2820 rpm
C. 2730 rpm
D. 2910 rpm
Q.47 Identify the measuring instrument shown
below.
Ans A. Rotameter
B. Venturimeter
C. Manometer
D. Thermometer
Q.48 With reference to
testing of DC machines, state TRUE/FALSE for following statements. . 1. The
most economical method of finding no-load losses of a large DC shunt motor
is
Swinburne’s test. .
2. Retardation test on a DC shunt motor is
used for finding stray losses.
Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE
B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE
C. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE
D. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE
Q.49 In which type of lighting is the light
distribution in upward and downward directions
approximately the same?
Ans A. Direct lighting
B. Indirect lighting
C. Semi-direct lighting
D. General diffusing lighting
Q.50 With reference to
the delta-delta connection of a 3-phase transformer, state TRUE/FALSE for
following statements.
1. It is satisfactory for both balanced and
unbalanced loading.
2. Third harmonic does not appear in the
output voltage wave.
Ans A. 1 - TRUE, 2 - FALSE
B. 1 - FALSE, 2 - TRUE
C. 1 - FALSE, 2 - FALSE
D. 1 - TRUE, 2 - TRUE
Q.51 For a single
stage transistor amplifier, the collector load Rc = 2 kΩ and the input
resistance Ri = 1 kΩ. If the current gain is 50, calculate the voltage gain of
the amplifier.
Ans A. 200
B. 150
C. 50
D. 100
Q.52 What is the recommended level of
illumination in control rooms of power houses?
Ans A. 700 lux
B. 1500 lux
C. 150 lux
D. 300 lux
Q.53 The voltage and
current being applied to a load are sinusoidal waveforms whose amplitudes are
50 V and 10 A, respectively. The phase angle between them is 30°. Find the
reactive
power of the load.
Ans A. 216 VAr
B. 500 VAr
C. 125 VAr
D. 250 VAr
Q.54 The effective
resistance of a 2200-V, 50-Hz, 440-kVA, 1-phase alternator is 0.5 Ω. On short
circuit, a field current of 40 A gives a full load current of 200 A. The open
circuit EMF for the
same field excitation is 1200 V. Find the
synchronous impedance.
Ans A. 6.5 Ω
B. 13 Ω
C. 6.0 Ω
D. 12 Ω
Q.55
Q.56 The unit of reluctivity is:
Ans A. Wb
B. Metre/Henry
C. Henry/Metre
D. AT
Q.57 A typical
squirrel cage induction motor will have _______ starting torque with ______
starting current, when started direct-on-line.
Ans A. 600%; 130%
B. 200%; 300%
C. 300%; 200%
D. 130%; 600%
Q.58 Ten capacitors
are connected in series. If all the ten capacitors are of the same value and
the equivalent capacitance is 10 µF, find the capacitance of each
capacitor.
Ans A. 100 µF
B. 50 µF
C. 20 µF
D. 10 µF
Q.59 In CRO, _____________ is NOT a part of
the vertical deflection system.
Ans A. main amplifier
B. delay line
C. preamplifier
D. time base generator
Q.60 A half-wave voltage doubler consists of
_____ diode(s).
Ans A. two
B. one
C. three
D. four
Q.61 Find the voltage ‘V’ in the following
circuit.
Ans A. 6 V
B. 10 V
C. 14 V
D. 30 V
Q.62 In induction motors, the synchronous
speed is:
Ans A. directly proportional to the frequency
B. directly proportional to the square-root of
the frequency
C. inversely proportional to the
frequency
D. inversely proportional to the square-root
of the frequency
Q.63 In the following circuit, if I1 = 10 A, I2 = 15 A and I3 = 20 A, find the total
current IT.
Ans A. 5 A
B. 45 A
C. 25 A
D. 15 A
Q.64 Arrange the
following materials in ascending order with reference to the resistance offered
to electrical current?
Glass, Silver, Germanium
Ans A. Germanium, Glass, Silver
B. Silver, Germanium, Glass
C. Silver, Glass, Germanium
D. Glass, Germanium, Silver
Q.65
Q.66 __________ is the most commonly used
material for insulators of overhead lines.
Ans A. Steatite
B. Porcelain
C. Quartz
D. Glass
Q.67 Find the value of Leq in the following
circuit.
Ans A. 18 H
B. 4 H
C. 12 H
D. 5 H
Q.68 Which segments of a seven-segment LED
should be lighted on to display the digit ‘1’?
Ans A. Segments B and C
B. Segments E and F
C. Segments C and D
D. Segments A and B
Q.69 In following circuit, find the total
current supplied by the battery.
Ans A. 2 A
B. 3 A
C. 5 A
D. 2.5 A
Q.70 Which of the following instruments is NOT
used for fluid flow measurements?
Ans A. Pitot tube
B. Pyrometer
C. Hot wire anemometer
D. Orifice meter
Q.71 Find the voltage drop across the 6-kΩ resistor in the following network.
Ans A. 90 V
B. 120 V
C. 30 V
D. 60 V
Q.72 When two
identical sinusoidal voltages with zero-degree phase difference are applied on
X and Y plates of a CRO, the Lissajous figure obtained will be a/an
__________.
Ans A. circle
B. straight line with negative slope
C. straight line with positive slope
D. ellipse
Q.73 With reference to
the power cable insulation, which of the following synthetic rubber-like
insulating materials is a thermosetting compound?
Ans A. PE – Polyethylene
B. EPR – Ethylene Propylene Rubber
C. HEPR – Hard Ethylene Propylene Rubber
D. XLPE – Cross-Linked Poly Ethylene
Q.74 The ratio of the
operating capacity to the available capacity of an Open-Delta connection is
___________
Ans A. 0.577
B. 0.866
C. 0.667
D. 0.134
Q.75 The following symbol is used for:
Ans A. Impedance
B. Inductance
C. Resistance
D. Capacitance
Q.76 Which of the following is a hard magnetic
material?
Ans A. Ferrite
B. Iron
C. nickel-iron alloy
D. Iron-silicon alloy
Q.77 Which of the following motors gives
translational motion instead of rotational motion?
Ans A. Three-phase induction motor
B. Linear induction motor
C. DC shunt motor
D. Synchronous motor
Q.78 What will be the
output frequency of a 6-pole alternator running at a speed of 1200 rpm? Ans A. 30 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 25 Hz
D. 50 Hz
Q.79 A moving-coil
voltmeter has the coil with 100 turns and is 4 cm long and 3 cm wide. If it
carries 25 mA of current and the flux density in the air gap is 0.06 Wb/m2, find the
deflecting torque.
Ans A. 18 × 10-5 N-m
B. 9 × 10-5 N-m
C. 9 × 10-6 N-m
D. 18 × 10-6 N-m
Q.80 The maximum demand on a power station is
200 MW. If the annual load factor is 50%,
calculate the total energy generated in a
year.
Ans A. 438 × 105 kWh
B. 876 × 106 kWh
C. 438 × 106 kWh
D. 876 × 105 kWh
Q.81 In case of indirect arc furnaces, the
power factor is approximately ________.
Ans A. 0.95 lagging
B. 0.65 lagging
C. 0.85 lagging
D. 0.75 lagging
Q.82 The current plug
settings usually range from 10% to 70% in steps of _________ for earth leakage
relays.
Ans A. 20%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Q.83 Which of the
following bridges is used for the measurement of incremental inductance? Ans A. De-Sauty bridge
B. Schering bridge
C. Kelvin’s bridge
D. Owen bridge
Q.84 A ring-shaped core with a cross-sectional area
of 400 mm2 carries a total flux of 10 mWb. Find the flux density.
Ans A. 25 T
B. 2.5 T
C. 0.25 T
D. 0.025 T
Q.85 Transform the following sinusoid form
into phasor form:
i(t) = 10 cos (50t - 30°)
Ans
Q.86 For synchronous motors, inverted V-curves
are the plots of power factor versus
____________.
Ans A. output frequency
B. field current
C. armature current
D. supply voltage
Q.87 In cadmium copper
conductors, addition of 1% to 2% cadmium to copper increases the tensile
strength by approximately __________.
Ans A. 50%
B. 95%
C. 75%
D. 25%
Q.88 In an underground system, the volume of
the conductor material required in 2-wire DC
system with midpoint earthed is ____________
that for a 2-wire DC system.
Ans A. four times
B. thrice
C. twice
D. the same as
Q.89 In a cumulative
compound DC generator, if the terminal voltage at full load is greater than
that at no load, it is called _________.
Ans A. under compounded
B. flat compounded
C. over compounded
D. critically compounded
Q.90 The following two tariffs are
offered:
(i) ₹100 plus 15 paise per unit
(ii) A flat rate of 40 paise per unit
At what consumption is the first tariff
economical?
Ans A. Above 400 units
B. Above 300 units
C. Above 200 units
D. Above 100 units
Q.91 Which of the
following is NOT a characteristic of Permanent Split Capacitor (PSC) motors?
Ans A. High pullout
torque
B. High power factor
C. High starting torque
D. High efficiency
Q.92 Which of the following is a non-fusion
welding?
Ans A. Inert gas welding
B. Carbon arc welding
C. Submerged arc welding
D. Forge welding
Q.93 Which of the following is NOT a
characteristic of shaded pole single phase motors?
Ans A. Low efficiency
B. High overload capacity
C. Low starting torque
D. Low overload capacity
Q.94 Find the most
economical value of the diameter of a single core cable to be used on a 50- kV,
single-phase system. The maximum permissible stress in the dielectric should
not
exceed 40√2 kV/cm.
Ans A. 2.5 cm
B. 3.5 cm
C. 2.0 cm
D. 3.0 cm
Q.95 In a 1-phase
alternator, the synchronous impedance is 0.25 Ω and the armature resistance is
0.1 Ω. Find the synchronous reactance.
Ans A. 0.23 Ω
B. 0.24 Ω
C. 0.25 Ω
D. 0.26 Ω
Q.96 Find V2 in the following circuit.
Ans A. 6 V
B. 4 V
C. 10 V
D. 8 V
Q.97 A three-phase
induction motor has 8 poles, and it runs on a supply frequency of 60 Hz. Find
the speed of the rotating magnetic field.
Ans A. 900 rpm
B. 600 rpm
C. 1200 rpm
D. 1500 rpm
Q.98 In vulcanised
Indian Rubber (VIR)-type insulating material, the sulphur content is _________.
Ans A. 0.7% to 1.5%
B. 10% to 15%
C. 3% to 5%
D. 0.1% to 0.5%
Q.99 Which of the following is NOT a correct
voltage level for primary transmissions?
Ans A. 66 kV
B. 220 kV
C. 132 kV
D. 11 kV
Q.100 Which of the following is NOT a valid advantage of static capacitors being used for power factor improvement?
Ans A. Less maintenance
B. Long service life – more than 15
years
C. Low losses
D. No rotating parts
Q.101 _____________ is a semiconductor device
with a P-N junction that converts light into
electrical current.
Ans A. Zener diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Light-emitting diode
D. Photodiode
Q.102 The following symbol is used for:
Ans A. Plug
B. Socket
C. Isolator
D. Circuit breaker
Q.103 A 100-W electric heater has a resistance of 4 Ω. What will be the maximum permissible current?
Ans A. 10 A
B. 5 A
C. 15 A
D. 25 A
Q.104 Which of the following is NOT a valid
advantage of fluorescent lamps?
Ans A. High luminous efficiency
B. No stroboscopic effect
C. Low running cost
D. Long life
Q.105 The peak point voltage and the valley
point voltage are characteristics of a _________.
Ans A. Zener diode
B. Varactor diode
C. Schottky diode
D. Tunnel diode
Q.106 Up to a voltage of __________, Potential
Transformers (PTs) are usually of dry type.
Ans A. 15000 V
B. 2000 V
C. 5000 V
D. 1000 V
Q.107 Which of the following bridges is a
mutual inductance bridge?
Ans A. Maxwell Wien bridge
B. De-Sauty bridge
C. Owen bridge
D. Heaviside-Campbell Bridge
Q.108 The maximum
possible value of mutual inductance between two coils having self
inductances of 16 H and 25 H are:
Ans A. 9 H
B. 20 H
C. 10 H
D. 41 H
Q.109 Which of the following is NOT a valid
advantage of hybrid stepper motors?
Ans A. Small step length
B. Low inertia and weight
C. Greater torque per unit volume
D. High efficiency at low speeds
Q.110 A steel ring with a 15-cm2 cross-sectional area is wound uniformly with 1000 turns of wire carrying a current of 500 mA. Find the MMF.
Ans A. 750 AT
B. 50 AT
C. 75 AT
D. 500 AT
